CAAP Instrument Rating (IR) Practice Exam

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• TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG indicates what?
• On an ILS glide slope, the rate of descent required to stay on the glide slope must be adjusted when which variable changes?
• What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
• Which is true regarding STARs?
• In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 ft AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above
• On a constant 3-degree glide slope, when a headwind shears to a tailwind, which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?
• When an instrument departure procedure is accepted, what must the pilot possess?
• To satisfy the minimum instrument flight experience requirement for IFR, the six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses must be logged within what time frame?
• Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
• During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?
• Prior to conducting timed approaches from a holding fix, which requirement is in effect?
• What is the minimum navigation equipment required to identify ANGOO intersection on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC?
• As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?
• What is cardinal altitude?
• When a collocated VOR/DME has the VOR portion inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at what interval?
• Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear icing in clouds?
• Two-way radio failure at 1015 while holding at the 10 DME fix east of LCH for an ILS approach to RWY 15, what procedure should be followed?
• In an abbreviated IFR departure clearance, the DP information included is:
• What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP if the pilot is on an IFR flight plan and clear of clouds?
• Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92 inHg?
• In Class E airspace at or above 10,000 ft MSL, the basic VFR weather minimums are flight visibility of 5 SM and a distance from clouds of:
• What does COP indicate on an airway chart?
• Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of which turn?
• Jet routes extend from 18,000 ft MSL up to and including which flight level?
• Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
• The following reports (in addition to those that are made at all times) should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact:
• What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?
• At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?
• Which statement correctly describes the upper limit of Victor airways?
• If you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a fix that is not the approach fix and you have an EFC time, what is the recommended departure action?
• Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92 inHg?
• What action should a pilot take if they do not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
• If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time is required to turn from a heading of 090 degrees to 270 degrees to the right?
• What is the maximum altitude for a Victor airway?
• When RAIM capability of GPS is lost or an outage is predicted, what is required regarding navigation?
• During IMC with two-way radio failure, which transponder code should you select to indicate lost communications?
• During takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
• Which distance is displayed by a DME indicator?
• The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
• What is the purpose of a VFR-on-Top clearance?
• Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?
• What does the term OVC008 indicate in a forecast?
• With a VFR-on-Top clearance in Class E, which statement best describes the required weather minima?
• Inbound on V552 toward GRICE INT, a left CDI deflection indicates you are to the right of V552. What is your position relative to V552 and GRICE INT?
• What is the maximum altitude you may flight plan IFR on V-86 Eastbound between Bozeman and Billings VORTACs?
• If forecast for an alternate with standard alternate minimums is 1,900 feet ceiling and 2.5 miles visibility, is the alternate required for the IFR flight plan?
• Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
• In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
• Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?
• Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by an FSS located on an airport without a control tower?
• The No Entry sign identifies which area?
• If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, what function does the FSS provide when the tower is closed?
• What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
• When radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?
• What lighting is indicated at Jackson Hole Airport on IFR charts?
• What does the symbol L with a surrounding circle indicate about an airport’s lighting?
• Outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and constant indicated altitude. What happens to true airspeed and true altitude?
• If hyperventilation is suspected, what should you do?
• When using the alternate static source, what combination of readings should you expect?
• If the first portion of a composite flight plan is IFR, which fixes should be indicated on the flight plan form?
• Which statement correctly defines Class G airspace?
• Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request to climb through a cloud layer and then continue the flight VFR?
• Which statement about a displaced threshold is true?
• What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
• What is the indication on the magnetic compass when rolling into a standard-rate turn to the left from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
• What fundamental sensor causes the vertical speed indicator to show climb or descent?
• During preflight, how should you verify vacuum-driven heading indicator stability on the ground?
• When is it appropriate to advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
• For an IFR flight plan with three legs at different altitudes, what information should be entered in Block 7?
• When an altimeter is changed from 30.11 inHg to 29.96 inHg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?
• When tailwind shifts to calm wind on a glide slope, which statement best describes the expected behavior?
• Before IFR flight, how should you preflight check the altimeter?
• While being vectored toward the final approach course, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken?
• During IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 ft MSL, how is the current altimeter setting normally obtained?
• While on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under
• The time entered in Block 12 should be based on which fuel quantity?
• FDC NOTAMs are used to advertise temporary flight restrictions caused by which categories of events?
• What are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V343 for a VFR-on-Top flight from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection?
• At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42 inHg. The pressure altitude would be approximately:
• What is a main procedural difference between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?
• What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
• What is the primary purpose of a prognostic weather chart in aviation?
• If signals from an off-airway radio facility are inadequate to identify a fix at the MEA, what altitude is designated for the fix?
• Which statement about ATIS updates is true?
• To prevent or overcome spatial disorientation, pilots should do what?
• When the altimeter setting is changed from 30.26 inHg to 29.92 inHg, how much will the indicated altitude change?
• To identify ANGOO intersection on V448, you should orient yourself around LTJ VORTAC on which radial?
• What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
• What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)?
• For an IFR flight eastbound on V520 from DBS VORTAC in an unpressurized aircraft at the MEA, which statement about oxygen requirements is correct?
• In a 180° steep turn to the right, rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator will:
• AIRMET Zulu provides information about which aviation hazards?
• If wind changes from headwind to tailwind on a constant glide slope with true airspeed constant, what is the expected change in airspeed and pitch attitude?
• For cabin altitude above 14,000 ft MSL, which requirement applies to the flight crew?
• If only the DME is operative and the VOR is not, what does the repeated single-coded identification indicate?
• In the KMEM forecast, the visibility is shown as 1/2SM; what does this indicate?
• What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
• MEA stands for Minimum En Route Altitude and ensures which of the following?
• Which VHF frequencies (other than 121.5) can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?
• When ATC issues an instrument departure procedure and it is accepted, what is ATC's presumption about the pilot's documentation?
• Which indication should a pilot observe if the airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked?
• If the altimeter setting is increased, what happens to the indicated altitude?
• If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what will the airspeed indicator show when you apply power and begin a climb from severe icing?
• Indicate the VSI behavior during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over.
• In a standard holding pattern, what is the direction of turns?
• What term describes the lifting of unstable moist air over mountainous terrain, causing clouds and showers?
• What does a No Entry sign look like?
• What does declaring 'minimum fuel' to ATC imply?
• When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?
• For planning, what is the highest MEA on V187 between Grand Junction and Durango?
• Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is which value?
• Approximately how many feet correspond to 1.0 inch of mercury?
• On IFR charts, what does the symbol e indicate near the VOR box?
• Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
• During taxi, what should the magnetic compass indicate?
• In METAR observation KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42, the sky condition VV008 indicates
• The 'Runway Hold Position' sign denotes which of the following?
• How do winds at 2,000 feet compare with surface winds?
• In mountainous areas, IFR operation is not allowed below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within which distance from the course?
• If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix beyond which a higher minimum applies?
• Which instrument is affected if the pitot tube is clogged with ice?
• What type of airspace exists above Bryce Canyon Airport from the surface to 1,200 feet AGL?
• What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME?
• Transition areas, as described, are designated as a specific Class E airspace when associated with an instrument approach. Which description matches this?
• Which sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure for IFR flight at 1100Z?
• If the forecast weather at ETA at the alternate indicates a ceiling of 2,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, is an alternate required for the IFR flight plan?
• Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?
• Which type of approach requires VFR weather conditions?
• Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?
• What minimums must be considered when selecting an altitude with a VFR-on-Top clearance?
• An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will allow descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR conditions.
• If ATC assigns an altimeter setting of 28.92 inHg while you are at FL 250, what pressure altitude are you flying?
• When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at rates of between
• Jet routes extend above 18,000 MSL; Victor airways do not.
• What is the purpose of instrument cross-check in attitude instrument flying?
• A pilot is more susceptible to spatial disorientation when relying on which information to determine attitude?
• What are common causes of RAIM outages when configuring GPS?
• Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
• EFAS is normally available during which hours?
• What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
• If you encounter severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
• Which elements must be included in the IFR portion of a composite flight plan when IFR begins en route?
• Which organization provides preflight briefings to pilots?
• If the glide slope and localizer are centered but the aircraft is too fast, what is the recommended initial input?
• What is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257?
• During a 180° coordinated steep turn, when the airplane is rolled out to straight-and-level flight, the attitude indicator will indicate which combination?
• Which condition during taxi indicates that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
• In a standard-rate turn from a south heading, what does the compass indicate?
• On a designated jet route, the MEA is the minimum altitude for obstacle clearance and navigational signal coverage between fixes. Which altitude is this commonly?
• Takeoff minimums apply to which FAA parts?
• If RAIM is not available when setting up a GPS approach, what should the pilot do?
• What reports are required for a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR-on-Top in a nonradar environment?
• The thickness of the overcast layer for SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 with field elevation 1,300 ft MSL and base 2,000 ft AGL and top 3,800 ft MSL is
• The altimeter setting near an airport provides traffic separation and obstruction clearance by indicating which type of altitude at field elevation?
• While en route from BCE VORTAC to HVE VORTAC on V8, what is your relation to the airway?
• In the Northern Hemisphere, which force causes wind to deflect to the right and become parallel to isobars?
• Under which circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?
• Which action best describes how to close your IFR flight plan when landing at an airport without a control tower or FSS on the field?
• At what altitude is the Coriolis effect most pronounced for aviation winds?
• When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
• Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
• To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, which instrument should be used as the reference to maintain the cruising airspeed?
• While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
• MOAs are established to do what?
• Which primary source should you use to obtain weather information for the forecast at your destination at the estimated time of arrival?
• The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of
• Below FL180, En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) operates on which frequency?
• During coordinated turns, which force moves the pendulous vanes of a vacuum-driven attitude indicator, causing precession toward the inside of the turn?
• What is the rate of turn for a half-standard-rate turn?
• To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, lead the desired altitude by approximately
• Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)
• How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?
• If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?
• A change of 1 inch of mercury in the altimeter setting corresponds to approximately how many feet of altitude change?
• Which instruments provide confirmation that you have reached and are maintaining the assigned altitude during a level-off?
• You enter a holding pattern at a fix (not same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
• What does 00000KT indicate about the wind in a forecast?
• At a standard-rate turn, how long would it take to turn through 180 degrees?
• In IMC with two-way radio communications failure, if you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?
• GRICE intersection is the intersection of V552 and which navigation course?
• What fuel would be consumed on the flight between Grand Junction and Durango if average fuel consumption is 15 GPH?
• After departing GJT to DRO and arriving but weather prevents landing, how long can you hold over DRO before departing for the return to Grand Junction?
• Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of
• Where should you expect the VOR frequency to be changed when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520?
• The static vents are connected directly to which instruments?
• The third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
• Which airspace types are depicted on En Route Low Altitude Charts?
• During a descent, if the field elevation is 134 feet and the altimeter is not reset to the local setting, what will the indicated altitude be upon landing?
• +SN in METAR reports indicates which intensity of snow?
• In a composite VFR/IFR flight plan, which items should be checked in Block 1 for the flight plan?
• For an IFR flight on V382 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized airplane, which oxygen requirement applies?
• Which interpretation best matches a PIREP reporting 64 NM on the 63° radial from the Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, FL080, aircraft Cessna 172, wind 245° at 40 kt, outside air temperature -4°C, and light turbulence with clear skies?
• During rolling out from a 180° steep turn to the right, what precession-related indication would you observe on the attitude indicator?
• What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
• What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
• What is the rate of a standard-rate turn?
• The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours in Class B, C, or D airspace typically indicates that
• If the first portion of a composite flight plan is IFR, what type of flight plan should be filed?
• What entry procedure is recommended for STRUT hold when ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306?
• What information does a Mach meter present?
• What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
• Class C airspace, when designated, extends from the surface to what altitude?
• Which items are always included in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance (radar environment)?
• If a pilot does not wish to use a DP, what notation should be placed in the IFR flight plan remarks?
• (Refer to Figure 123.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?
• What is the term used for the altitude at which a decision to continue landing or execute a missed approach is made on a precision approach?
• When the forecast visibility is greater than 6 statute miles, how is it expressed in a TAF?
• For planning an instrument flight, the most current en route and destination information should be obtained from
• Which heading(s) exhibit no turning errors when making a standard-rate turn in the magnetic compass?
• If true heading is 200°, and variation is 20° East, what is the magnetic heading?
• An ILS approach with a malfunctioning electronic glide slope while VASI is in sight. What action should the pilot take?
• A pilot's recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?
• Which statement about jet routes is true?
• What does MCA stand for in IFR procedures?
• How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
• On a sectional chart, what does a brown airport symbol indicate?
• Determine the time to be entered in block 10 for the GROMO TWO DEPARTURE.
• What is the definition of MEA?
• What is the rate of turn for a standard-rate turn?
• When using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways, which fixes become compulsory reporting points?
• What does MCA stand for on IFR charts?
• ILS stands for
• What does MEA stand for?
• Local Airport Advisory (LAA) service provides which of the following to arriving and departing aircraft?
• If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action is to?
• What is the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC, given a wind of 24 knots from 260 and a TAS of 185 knots? (VAR 17°E)
• What VHF frequencies are available for communications with Cedar City FSS?
• Which VOR CDI indication would meet the Lafayette VOR receiver check requirements?
• On 3-bar VASI, which bars provide the lower glide path?
• En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57 inHg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?
• Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
• In mountainous areas where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate IFR below which altitude above the highest obstacle?
• If very stable moist air is forced up a slope, which cloud type will most likely form?
• Eastbound IFR altitude numbering uses which pattern?
• If the destination airport has a standard instrument approach procedure (IAP), what is the minimum forecast condition from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA to avoid listing an alternate?
• If you are vectored to a Victor airway and ATC tells you to resume your own navigation, what does this imply?
• To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as PIC under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding six calendar months in the same category of aircraft: six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems. Which option lists this requirement correctly?
• What is the MEA for V382?
• For flights through an air defense identification zone, what type of flight plan is required?
• In a METAR, what does OVC020 denote?
• During recovery from an unusual attitude without the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when which events occur?
• To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should
• The reference '2 o'clock' corresponds to approximately how many degrees to the right of the aircraft's current course?
• To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
• For an IFR flight plan with a VFR-on-Top clearance on a course of 180°, what altitude should you fly?
• The altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates which of the following?
• What does the ATC term 'Radar Contact' signify?
• What does BKN008 mean in METAR?
• Which items are typically included in an ATIS broadcast?
• Which of the following conditions is required before timed approaches from a holding fix may be conducted?
• If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, which procedure should be followed unless otherwise cleared by ATC?
• An altimeter check shows a field elevation of 600 ft, but instrument indicates 690 ft after applying local setting. What should you do?
• When climbing to an assigned altitude on an airway, what is the recommended path?
• When fixes are used to define a direct route and radar contact is not established, what happens to those fixes?
• Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?
• EFAS provides weather advisories for en route aircraft on what altitude range?
• The three fundamental skills involved in all instrument maneuvers are which of the following?
• Rotating the altimeter's setting knob to a higher (or lower) barometric setting moves the hands to higher (or lower) indicated altitude at the rate of 1 inch Hg to 1,000 feet of altitude. Given the current altimeter setting of 30.42 and the indicated altitude of 6,500 ft., resetting the window to 29.92 would lower indicated altitude by how many feet?
• On a constant 3-degree glide slope, when a tailwind shears to a calm wind, which conditions should the pilot expect in terms of airspeed and pitch attitude?
• Are STARs mandatory for IFR flights when published for an airport?
• During a standard-rate turn to the right from a westerly heading, what will the compass indicate if the roll into the turn is smooth?
• Timed approaches from a holding fix are permissible under which condition?
• What minimum forecast weather condition must be met to list an alternate when the destination has no approved IAP?
• ATC restrictions regarding VFR-on-Top altitudes may require you to:
• What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR-on-Top clearance?
• To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to
• Which information sources provide the most current icing information (current and forecast) for a given area?
• Refer to figure 89: When crossing Cedar City VOR (CDC) on V293 eastbound to Bryce Canyon, what minimum altitude must you cross CDC?
• A "VRB" wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates that the wind is forecast to fluctuate due to convective activity or low speeds (3 kt or less). Which statement is correct?
• What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of an IAP indicate?
• What is the minimum crossing altitude (MCA) at TROTS intersection when northeastbound on V468?
• What is the significance of the ATC clearance "CRUISE SIX THOUSAND"?
• When making a timed approach from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust which holding pattern segment?
• Determine the time to be entered in block 10 for the flight from GJT to DRO using wind interpolation (12,000 and 18,000 ft).
• What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS?
• Under a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots, which vortex behavior is most likely to occur?
• What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
• Precession errors between which range are typically self-corrected by the erecting mechanism of the attitude indicator?
• Which term describes the altitude read when the altimeter is set to 29.92 inHg?
• What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
• To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately what percent of the vertical speed?
• Which of the following statements about oxygen requirements is correct for an IFR flight at MEA of 15,000 ft in an unpressurized aircraft?
• Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
• Why is frost hazardous to flight operation?
• You may ignore MCA with ATC clearance
• You are being vectored to the ILS approach course but have not been cleared for the approach. If you realize you will cross the localizer course, what action should you take?
• Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is
• What does the wind-shear forecast WS005/27050KT indicate in terms of the height of the wind shear?
• When operating in VMC with ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top/maintain VFR conditions, pilots on IFR flight plans are required to which of the following?
• What is a key difference between a visual approach and a contact approach?
• Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to the aircraft type on the flight plan form?
• When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by ATC?
• Under instrument departure procedures, how are DP clearances issued?
• Prognostic charts are valid at a specific time expressed in which time standard?
• Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?
• Instrument cross-check is defined as what?
• What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?
• Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
• During level flight, if you must use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following instrument indications should you expect?
• Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above which reference plane?
• Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
• When must a pilot fly a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
• On an IFR flight plan transitioning into VFR conditions, what is the pilot's responsibility regarding other traffic?
• MEA is an altitude which assures which of the following?
• During IFR operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, which statement is true about alternate navigation?
• Where are runway holding position signs typically located?
• In a turn from a southerly heading, how does the compass behave?
• For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
• How is MOCA indicated on the MEA chart?
• What weather conditions must be observed when operating under a VFR-on-top clearance?
• Which frequency would indicate the VORTAC LFT to TBD VORTAC COP at the midway point on V552?
• What is the westbound VFR-on-Top cruising altitude below 18,000 feet?
• VFR-on-Top operations are prohibited in which airspace?
• A standard-rate turn means an airplane is turning at 3 degrees per second. How long would it take to complete a 90-degree turn?
• After applying a 14° East variation to a true wind direction of 230° with 8 kt wind, what is the magnetic direction and wind speed?
• What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA?
• In the outer area of Class C airspace, what service does ATC provide to an IFR flight?
• Which corrections does a Mach meter perform automatically?
• When reporting NAV equipment malfunction to ATC, which information is required to be included?
• If an approach to a runway has a 3-bar VASI and all VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should
• The pitot-static system provides pressure to which instrument(s)?
• If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn clockwise from a heading of 090 degrees to 180 degrees?
• What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
• Jet routes altitude range?
• Setting the altimeter to 29.92 inHg yields which type of altitude?
• Which of the following reports should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
• In a METAR, the remark RMK RAE42SNB42 means
• Transition areas terminate at the base of the overlying controlled airspace; true or false?
• During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant which event?
• What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)
• A preflight briefing should cover which topics?
• How wide is an SDF course?
• Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
• What happens if the glide slope becomes inoperative during an ILS approach?
• The term "cruise" in a clearance assigns a pilot a block of airspace from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the specified altitude (e.g., 6,000 ft). Which statement is true about actions within that block?
• If departing from an airport not served by a control tower, a clearance with a void time is issued. What must the pilot do if not off by the void time?
• MEA ensures obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage along the route.
• What does the symbol 'h' indicate when the COP is not located at the halfway point between two NAVAIDs?
• How does an attitude indicator erect itself?
• The altitude that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements is the minimum:
• What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR with two VOR receivers?
• If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
• Which altitude must not be below when selecting a VFR-on-Top altitude?
• MOCA is the lowest published altitude that provides obstacle clearance and navigational signal coverage within how many NM of a VOR?
• In the outer area of Class C airspace, from which aircraft groups does ATC provide separation for IFR flight?
• What does REIL stand for?
• Why is DME required for the VOR/DME-A procedure?
• Why is the localizer back course at Jefferson County Airport depicted?
• How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet given the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast excerpt with 9000 1043-10?
• Which procedure should you follow if you are IFR in conditions where you have two-way radio failure but conditions are VFR?
• During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3,000 ft scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
• Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight-and-level flight?
• Why is only one VOR receiver required for the VOR/DME-A procedure?
• VFR-on-Top clearances are flown at altitudes that are which of the following?
• What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?
• What does the acronym COP stand for in VOR navigation?
• If no MCA is published at a fix, you may cross at or above the preceding MEA.
• On an IFR flight plan, when is a pilot responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
• What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on V187?
• What action should a pilot take if a T symbol is shown in the minimums for an airport?
• If the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
• A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace
• What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period?
• On V306 eastbound from Daisetta to Lake Charles, how far east of Daisetta is the VOR changeover point (COP)?
• What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
• What is an acceptable altitude indication difference when verifying the altimeter against the field elevation during preflight checks?
• What does the acronym TAF stand for in aviation weather?
• If the glide slope and localizer are centered but the airspeed is too fast, which adjustment should be made first?
• What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?
• What is the floor of Class A airspace?
• To stay on the glide path, how should the rate of descent change when ground speed increases?
• In a northerly heading turn, what does the magnetic compass do initially?
• When two-way radio communications fail while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions, what should the pilot do?
• As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using
• In a KMEM forecast, the wind at 1800Z is shown as 00000KT; what is the wind at that time?
• What does MM stand for in ILS terminology?
• If you are inbound on the I-PTN localizer and observe a left CDI deflection, what does this indicate about your position relative to the localizer course?
• What are the vertical limits of a transition area designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed instrument approach procedure?
• When only one missed approach procedure is available, which condition applies to timed approaches from a holding fix?
• On airways, where should climbs and descents be performed?
• MOAs provide separation between which activities?
• What indication does the magnetic compass give when you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere, if the roll is smooth?
• Aircraft control in attitude instrument flying consists of which three controls?
• During a half-standard-rate turn, turning through 90 degrees from 090 to 180 degrees would take how long?
• Which type of altitude is used when maintaining FL 210?
• The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast covers a geographical area within a radius of how many statute miles from the airport center?
• For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
• When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?
• An alternate airport is not required to be listed on an IFR flight plan if the destination airport has a standard instrument approach procedure available and, for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA, the weather reports or forecasts indicate
• Which parameter most directly affects the rate of descent along an ILS glide slope?
• Which action is recommended if a DME fails for a pilot at or above FL 240?
• If your VOR receivers indicate as shown, what is your position relative to FALSE intersection on V222 and DAS?
• In Class E airspace, when cleared to maintain VFR-on-top, the cruising altitude is based on the direction of which measure?
• Taxiing and you observe the VSI indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. What should you do?
• In the 48 contiguous states, at what altitude does the requirement for transponder Mode C become mandatory in controlled airspace?
• During climbs or descents in VFR conditions on an IFR flight, what maneuver is recommended to maintain situational awareness?
• What pre-takeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
• What is the most effective technique to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
• Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?
• What frequency is used for the Great Falls RCO to contact Great Falls FSS?
• Full-scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation needle deflects which way?
• Southbound on V257, at what time should you arrive at DBS VORTAC if you crossed CPN VORTAC at 0850 and over DIVID intersection at 0854?
• The VASI system provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline from as far as how many nautical miles from the threshold?
• With a constant true airspeed on a 3-degree glide slope, what is the effect of wind direction change on the required descent rate?
• When you are using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have
• To level off from a descent at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
• What is the minimum crossing altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound on V298?
• Instrument interpretation requires you to understand which aspects of each instrument?
• If you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter to which of the following?
• What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
• Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-on-Top clearance?
• One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the
• Near-surface winds are weaker than aloft primarily because
• Under a VFR-on-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on which of the following?
• When all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon which point?
• What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?
• If you experience two-way communications failure at a holding fix not the same as the approach fix, which procedure should you follow?
• What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
• In VMC with ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top, pilots on IFR flight plans must:
• How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or FSS on the field?
• Which ARTCC uses an RCO at Hanksville on a discrete frequency of 133.6?
• A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
• What causes surface winds to cross the isobars at an angle rather than flow parallel to them?
• When an abbreviated IFR departure clearance ends with "...CLEARED AS FILED ...", what will it always contain?
• Which locator transmits the first two letters of the localizer identification group?
• The altimeter setting term true altitude is not completely accurate because the altimeter does not correct for nonstandard temperature. Which statement reflects this?
• What is the purpose of fixing the SDF course width at 6∞ or 12∞?
• The thickness of the overcast layer for METAR KMDW 1 1/2SM +RA BR OVC007 with field elevation 620 ft MSL and tops 6,500 ft MSL is
• What is the nature of Local Airport Advisory (LAA) service provided by an FSS on an airport when the control tower is closed?
• For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum forecast weather condition must be present at ETA to list an alternate at an airport with a precision approach procedure and standard alternate minimums?
• What does the flag icon with an X inside near a VOR box indicate in chart symbology?
• What do runway holding position markings on taxiways identify?
• The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to which setting?
• Interpret this PIREP: MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430/FL 060/TP C182/SK BKN BL /WX RA/TB MDT.
• ATC may assign the MOCA when certain conditions exist, and when within how many nautical miles of a VOR?
• Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?
• What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?
• Before transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan, what is the recommended action?
• Which statement correctly describes altitude ranges for Victor airways and jet routes?
• What does the published localizer course symbol at Jefferson County Airport indicate?
• When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
• The rate of descent on the ILS glide slope is dependent on which parameter?
• What does a flight level indicate altitude as?
• The Class A airspace ceiling is from 18,000 feet MSL up to which altitude?
• When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
• From which source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?
• Under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?
• During radar traffic information, if ATC reports traffic as 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound and you are holding a 20-degree right wind correction, where should you look for the traffic?
• If you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination, when must you establish two-way communication with the tower in Class D airspace?
• In Class B airspace, apart from a VOR receiver and two-way communications, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation?
• Which sequence correctly recovers from a spiraling nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
• On the Easterwood Field VOR checkpoint, which indications meet the VOR receiver check requirements?
• RAIM stands for which of the following?
• Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of how many NM?
• During en route IFR, if ATC says radar service terminated, what action is appropriate?
• The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating to operate under which conditions?
• As a climb, approximately what percent of indicated vertical speed should be used to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?
• The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight-and-level flight?
• What does the acronym VA stand for in aviation, particularly in turbulence guidance?
• What is the wind shear forecast in a TAF if the wind-shear code is WS005/27050KT?
• Decode the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast excerpt for OKC at 39,000 feet: FT 3000 6000 39000 OKC 830558. Which statement is correct?